PPG 2

PPG 2

Test your PPG 2 knowledge with this test.

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Your NameYour EmailInstructor NameInstructor Email

1 / 50

1) Which of the following statements are true regarding parachutal stall (select all that apply)?

It's when the wing is descending mostly vertically

It's MORE likely to happen on lightly loaded wings

It's MORE likely on wings with porous fabric

It' MORE likely to happen when the trimmers are set to FAST

It's MORE likely to happen when the speedbar is applied

It's MORE likely to happen if the wing is wet

2 / 50

2) You take off and discover the right brake line is caught tight in its pulley. What should you do?

Focus only on the problem while you try to regain steering control

Establish a safe course and climb, steer with other means (rears, weight shift, etc.), then deal with it once you have altitude

Abort to as safe a landing as possible even if the terrain is not favorable

Immediately pull the brake with short, firm tugs to clear the tangle

3 / 50

3) Weather in the mountains tends to be:

More dynamic because of Coriolis effect.

More dynamic because of lower overall solar heating. More dynamic because of lower overall solar heating.

Less dynamic because the mountains block horizontal winds.

Less dynamic because the mountains block sunlight in the values.

More dynamic due to uneven heating and eddies from winds.

4 / 50

4) The number 20 is pointing to a metal piece. What is that piece called?

Carabiner

Harnel Hook

Harnel D Ring

Quick link or Maillions

5 / 50

5) The number 12 is next to a small metal piece. What is this piece called?

Alternate brake connection

Alternate trimmer connection

Alternate trimmer connection (Harnel Hook)

Sister Clip (Brummel Hook) - For speed bar

6 / 50

6) When landing in in strong turbulence:

Landing power ON makes success more likely at the risk of prop damage

Landing power OFF makes success more likely at the risk of equipment damage.

Slow down to your slowest possible speed to reduce the effect of the turbulence.

It's best to land power off with the trimmers set to fast and using fairly heavy braking.

7 / 50

7) The risk of spot landings is mostly from:

Landing short and hitting something

Landing long and hitting something

Pulling too much brake and stalling or spinning

Not pulling enough brake during the flare

8 / 50

8) Refer to the Wind Drift image. You're at position A when the motor quits and you want to make the Island. Approximately what heading will you fly?

The heading of glider 1

The heading of glider 2

The heading of glider 3

SOME heading to the right of glider 3's

SOME heading to the left of glider 1's.

9 / 50

9) A smooth 10 mph wind is blowing. Your motor quits and now you're trying to reach a landing field that is upwind of you. Which setting will enable you to travel the longest distance?

Set the trimmers to neutral and keep some brake pressure to minimize sink.

Set trimmers to their slowest setting and fly the best speed for minimum sink.

Set the trimmers to fast and minimize brake input to maximize glide.

Set the trimmers to fast but hold at least half brake to minimize sink at the higher speed.

10 / 50

10) Parachutal stall is:

where the brakes are pulled enough for the wing to deform and come down like an old round parachute.

where the wing, fully inflated, stops flying forward and descends vertically.

where one side of the wing collapses in a way that stops forward speed, causing a vertical descent.

is not a factor in modern gliders.

3 and 4 are correct.

11 / 50

11) Refer to red D on the Orlando Chart's left side. You...

can fly from there with as little as 1 mile visibility.

cannot fly from there due to proximity to Orlando's B airspace.

cannot fly from there due to a special flight restriction.

can fly from there as long as you stay at least 1 mile away from the Disney world theme park.

12 / 50

12) Refer to red number 8 on the Orlando Chart. Which statement is true?

You cannot launch here due to being within 5 miles of a charted airport.

You cannot launch here due to being in Orlando's B airspace.

1 and 2 are true.

You are in G airspace and can launch here with as little as 1 mile visibility but need to be aware that B airspace is above you.

13 / 50

13) Refer to red number 5 on the Orlando Chart. Launching there you...

are in G airspace with B airspace starting at 10000 feet AGL.

are in E airspace with B airspace starting at 1600 feet AGL.

are in G airspace with E airspace starting at 1200 feet AGL and B airspace starting at 1600 feet MSL.

are in B airspace and must have prior permission from Orlando Approach Control.

14 / 50

14) Refer to red number 4 on the Orlando Chart's bottom. Launching there you...

are in G airspace.

would be in E airspace if you climbed above 1200 feet.

1 and 2 are correct.

are illegal without prior permission from Orlando Approach control.

15 / 50

15) Refer to red number 3 on the Orlando Chart's left side. Which statement is true if you launch there?

You're in B airspace which overrides the Kissimmee D airspace.

You're in D airspace with B airspace above starting at 2000 feet MSL.

You're in G airspace with B airspace above starting at 2000 feet MSL.

You're in E airspace with D airspace above starting at 2000 feet MSL.

16 / 50

16) Flying over clouds is nearly always a bad idea because they can close in on you. But legally…(check all that apply)

you can fly over them as long as you don't go in them AND remain in G airspace AND remain below 1200'

you must maintain visual reference with the surface.

you cannot fly over clouds.

you must must maintain 500 feet below the clouds at all times

17 / 50

17) Wind direction is the direction from which the wind is blowing. For example: If the wind is shown as 270 degrees, this indicates the wind is blowing from the_________.

North.

South.

East.

West.

North/West

18 / 50

18) If you are at the beach and the "off-shore" breezes are 6-8 m.p.h. This indicates:

It's is blowing out to sea and conditions are likely to be turbulent.

It's blowing in from the sea and conditions should be smooth.

You should inflate / launch towards the water.

Final approach will be towards the water

19 / 50

19) What are some ways to suspect a gust front is heading your way? (check all that apply)

Virga is spotted

The temperature begins to drop.

Ridge of approaching clouds ("Shelf Cloud").

Aviation weather forecast information.

The cloud looks like it's moving away (being pushed) from where the rain is falling.

20 / 50

20) As the air temperature drops, which of the following statements are true? (Select all that apply)

The air is more dense and it will be harder to launch.

The air is more dense and therefore the propeller has more thrust.

The air is more dense therefore the glider has more lift.

You most likely won't have to run as far during launch.

You will have to run further and faster than you are used to.

21 / 50

21) When the air is very humid, what does that usually mean for us as PPG pilots?

It is generally harder to launch in humid air (air is less dense).

The propeller has more thrust (air is more dense).

The glider has more lift (air is more dense).

You will likely have to run further during launch (air is less dense).

1 and 4 are correct.

22 / 50

22) You're at the beach of a large body of water. Wind is coming on shore but a mile inland it's blowing opposite (towards the water). Which is true?

Onshore beach winds suggest that any storms will move from over the land towards the water.

Wind strength tends to weaken in the afternoon.

Wind direction tends to become offshore in early afternoon then on shore later.

2 and 3 are correct.

You may experience convergence turbulence and the offshore wind may reach the beach.

23 / 50

23) On many sunny days, the presence of these clouds in the morning indicate increasing thermals and associated turbulence:

Stratus.

Nimbus.

Cumulus.

Cirrus.

Fog.

24 / 50

24) Active flying is defined as:

Flying in such a way as to keep the glider slowly moving left/right.

Holding about 2 pounds of brake press at all times.

Modulating the brakes so as to counter engine torque effects during throttle changes.

Modulation of brake pressures to keep the glider essentially centered overhead.

25 / 50

25) What is the order of actions on a power-off landing:

Come out of the seat, ease hands mostly up for the last 20 feet, shut the motor off just before touchdown.

Shut the motor off, ease hands mostly up for the last 20 feet, come out the seat just before touchdown.

Shut the motor off, come out of the seat, ease hands mostly up for the last 20 feet until flaring.

Come out of the seat, hold about half power through the flare, shutting off the motor just before touchdown.

26 / 50

26) You are launching in light winds. If you start your run, what is likely to happen if you suddenly slow your run mid-launch?

The glider could fly past you (over fly you) and collapse.

This is the best way to ensure the glider keeps flying fast enough.

Internal pressure will increase making the glider more efficient.

It is more likely the glider will stay centered above you.

27 / 50

27) You are on final approach and notice that you are drifting to the right. What should you do?

Apply slight right brake to align your glider with your new flight path.

Apply slight left brake to bring your glider directly into the wind.

Begin your flair early to slow the glider and avoid obstacles.

Do not steer or twist, but be prepared to land sideways.

28 / 50

28) You are at 30 feet AGL on final approach. You should...

Apply ¾ brake input to slow the glider, getting ready to release it at touchdown.

keep minimal or no brake pressure until just before touchdown.

apply about ¼ brake input to slow the glider, getting ready to release it at touchdown.

Start applying brake until you reach full travel just before touchdown.

29 / 50

29) The speed at which the glider will tend to fly when no pilot input is given (brakes in full up position) is called:

Trim speed.

Top speed.

Minimum sink speed.

Stall speed.

30 / 50

30) Before flying a new area, you must verify the airspace is legal. What are some ways you can check the airspace (select all that apply)?

Call flight service at 1-800-WX-BRIEF

Check the current/valid Sectional Chart (printed or online at skyvector.com)

You don't need to verify the airspace. We can fly anywhere we want.

Call the nearest airport and talk to the control tower.

31 / 50

31) Airspace can be closed to all flying. Which of the following statements are true? (check all that apply)

Airspace can be closed by NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with at least 24 hour notice.

Airspace can be closed by NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with little or no advance warning.

Flight Service (800 WX-BRIEF) is a good source for airspace closure information.

The nearest FAA Air Traffic Control Tower is the best source for airspace closure information.

TFR's (temporary flight restrictions) can be found online at tfr.faa.gov or on website sites like skyvector.com

32 / 50

32) In most U.S. airspace (G airspace), below 700' (1200' in some areas), how far must you remain from clouds?

Clear of clouds.

1 mile.

500' above, 2000' to the side and 1000' below.

500' below, 2000' to the side and 1000' above.

33 / 50

33) In the U.S., regarding G airspace (check all that apply)

It is all US airspace that is not classified as Class A, B, C, D, or E.

It is uncontrolled airspace.

It is most of the airspace up to either 700' or 1,200 feet AGL.

It sits on top of E airspace and requires higher visibility and cloud clearance requirements

34 / 50

34) In the U.S., regarding E airspace (check all that apply)

Permission is required.

In most places E airspace starts at either 700' or 1200' AGL.

Flying in E airspace requires better visibility and cloud clearance than G.

Flying in E airspace requires permission from the control tower

E airspace is not used in the U.S.

35 / 50

35) The minimum visibility for flying in E airspace is:

3 miles.

1 mile.

5 miles.

No minimum is specified since flight is prohibited there.

36 / 50

36) The minimum visibility for launching in the vast majority of U.S. territory, away from large airports, is:

3 miles.

1 mile.

3 miles at the surface and 5 miles above 700' AGL.

10 miles.

37 / 50

37) Which statement is True?

A PPG, after an engine failure, has the right-of-way over all powerd aircraft.

Objects may not be dropped from an ultralight.

Powered ultralights shall yield the right-of-way to unpowered ultralights.

unpowered ultralights shall yield the right-of-way to powered ultralights.

38 / 50

38) Which statement is true regarding night flying for paramotors?

We can fly up to 30 minutes after sunset IF we have strobe (visible 3-miles) AND we stay in G airspace.

It's allowed If the paramotor has steady green, red and white "3-mile lights" AND pilots stay within uncontrolled airspace.

Flying sunset to sunrise is allowed with an operating "3-mile strobe".

Flying between sunset to sunrise is not allowed regardless of lighting.

39 / 50

39) Regarding Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs), as a PPG pilot you…

are not regulated as a foot-launched ultralight vehicle.

operate only under FAR part 103.

operate only under the Ultralight section of FAR part 91.

operate only under the single-pilot section of Sport Pilot FAR.

operate only under the single-pilot section of FAR part 61.

40 / 50

40) Regarding the use of a reserve parachute for powered paragliding:

PPG pilots typically fly at low attitudes, so a reserve parachute would not help.

Reserves are avoided due to the risk of accidental deployment.

Reserves are unnecessary since PPG pilots typically fly when the conditions are calm.

A reserve parachute can save your life in an emergency situation.

41 / 50

41) It is important to check the weather before flying. One of the best sources for this information is...

Call an FAA control tower for winds aloft.

Call a Flight Advisory Station at 888-WXR-INFO.

Call a Flight Service Station at 800-WX-BRIEF or use internet resources.

1 and 2.

42 / 50

42) The front of the glider is called the leading edge; the back of the glider is called the trailing edge. The distance from the leading to trailing edges is called the_______.

Span.

Dihedral.

Chord.

Camber.

43 / 50

43) The tachometer is most useful for:

Detecting if the engine is overheating.

Measuring vibration.

Verifying the motor is able to achieve full power.

Reading out propeller RPM directly on reduction drive units.

44 / 50

44) Check all that apply. If the engine crank shaft spins left (counter clockwise), the prop spins:

Left on direct drives.

Left on gear reduction drives.

Left on belt reduction drives.

Left on clutched, gear reduction drives.

Left on clutched, belt reduction drives.

45 / 50

45) If your engine is much louder than normal, you likely have:

A damaged ("blown") exhaust manifold gasket.

Cracked intake silencer.

Damaged welds on the tuned exhaust.

It could be any of the above.

46 / 50

46) Where is the safest place to start your engine?

On the ground.

On your back.

When the propeller is removed.

Strapped to a car.

47 / 50

47) When is the safest time of day to fly? Check all that apply.

Early morning, after sunrise.

Mid-afternoon after clouds form.

Late-afternoon, an hour or so before sunset.

Just after cold frontal passage

48 / 50

48) What is the significance of the PPG2 rating?

It should fly under direct instructor supervision.

It is required to fly into Class E, B, C, or D airspace.

It is required to fly into class B, C, or D airspace.

It is considered the minimum skills and knowledge to fly on your own.

49 / 50

49) The default reaction to an unknown twisting or wing malfunction is:

Keep the power steady and pull the brakes to your shoulders.

Smoothly increase the power and reduce brake pressure.

Increase brake pressure while smoothly reducing power.

Smoothly reduce brake pressure and power, then steer.

50 / 50

50) The winds are blowing 6-8 m.p.h. from the South. What is the safest direction to fly before returning to the launch site?

North.

South.

East or West.

Makes no difference.

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