PPG 2

PPG 2

Test your PPG 2 knowledge with this test.

Important: If you are a USPPA member, please make sure you are logged in to your account BEFORE you take the test. If you are not logged in, your test results will not be linked to your membership account.

Your test results will be sent to the email address you enter below.

If you include an Instructor Name and Instructor Email, we will send your test results directly to your instructor as well (not required).

Your NameYour EmailInstructor NameInstructor Email

1 / 50

1) Which of the following statements are true regarding parachutal stall (select all that apply)?

It's when the wing is descending mostly vertically

It's MORE likely to happen on lightly loaded wings

It's MORE likely on wings with porous fabric

It' MORE likely to happen when the trimmers are set to FAST

It's MORE likely to happen when the speedbar is applied

It's MORE likely to happen if the wing is wet

2 / 50

2) Weather in the mountains tends to be:

More dynamic because of Coriolis effect.

More dynamic because of lower overall solar heating. More dynamic because of lower overall solar heating.

Less dynamic because the mountains block horizontal winds.

Less dynamic because the mountains block sunlight in the values.

More dynamic due to uneven heating and eddies from winds.

3 / 50

3) What does number 1 represent (distance between wing tip to wing tip)?

Span

Chord

Thickness

Chord area

Span Ratio

4 / 50

4) The distance from the front of the wing to the back of the wing (represented by #2 in the image) is called?

Span

Chord

Thickness

Chord area

Span Ratio

5 / 50

5) The number 20 is pointing to a metal piece. What is that piece called?

Carabiner

Harnel Hook

Harnel D Ring

Quick link or Maillions

6 / 50

6) The risk of spot landings is mostly from:

Landing short and hitting something

Landing long and hitting something

Pulling too much brake and stalling or spinning

Not pulling enough brake during the flare

7 / 50

7) Refer to the Wind Drift image. You're at position A when the motor quits and you want to make the Island. Approximately what heading will you fly?

The heading of glider 1

The heading of glider 2

The heading of glider 3

SOME heading to the right of glider 3's

SOME heading to the left of glider 1's.

8 / 50

8) A smooth 10 mph wind is blowing. Your motor quits and now you're trying to reach a landing field that is upwind of you. Which setting will enable you to travel the longest distance?

Set the trimmers to neutral and keep some brake pressure to minimize sink.

Set trimmers to their slowest setting and fly the best speed for minimum sink.

Set the trimmers to fast and minimize brake input to maximize glide.

Set the trimmers to fast but hold at least half brake to minimize sink at the higher speed.

9 / 50

9) If you encounter strong turbulence, you should:

fly the wing as directed in its manual and land immediately.

fly the wing as directed in its manual and analyze landing options.

fly with about 1/4 brake pressure and land immediately.

fly with about 1/4 brake pressure and analyze landing options.

10 / 50

10) Spiral dives, where the wing is pointed nearly straight down,

should be avoided on anything above a beginner certified glider. Higher performance gliders tend to "lock in."

are milder with trimmers set to slow. They are primarily dangerous with trimmers at their fastest settings.

are dangerous beyond appearances due to the risk of blacking out and extremely high descent rate.

when done properly, are a reliable way for newer pilots to descend in the event of getting into a cloud.

11 / 50

11) Parachutal stall is:

where the brakes are pulled enough for the wing to deform and come down like an old round parachute.

where the wing, fully inflated, stops flying forward and descends vertically.

where one side of the wing collapses in a way that stops forward speed, causing a vertical descent.

is not a factor in modern gliders.

3 and 4 are correct.

12 / 50

12) Refer to red D on the Orlando Chart's left side. You...

can fly from there with as little as 1 mile visibility.

cannot fly from there due to proximity to Orlando's B airspace.

cannot fly from there due to a special flight restriction.

can fly from there as long as you stay at least 1 mile away from the Disney world theme park.

13 / 50

13) Refer to red number 4 on the Orlando Chart's bottom. Which statements are true?

You are over a congested area and must maintain at least 500 feet AGL.

You are over a congested area and must maintain at least 1000 feet AGL.

You may be over a congested area but the yellow has no legal significance in that regard.

You are not allowed to fly over a congested area at any altitude.

3 and 4 are correct.

14 / 50

14) Refer to red number 8 on the Orlando Chart. Which statement is true?

You cannot launch here due to being within 5 miles of a charted airport.

You cannot launch here due to being in Orlando's B airspace.

1 and 2 are true.

You are in G airspace and can launch here with as little as 1 mile visibility but need to be aware that B airspace is above you.

15 / 50

15) Refer to red number 5 on the Orlando Chart. Launching there you...

are in G airspace with B airspace starting at 10000 feet AGL.

are in E airspace with B airspace starting at 1600 feet AGL.

are in G airspace with E airspace starting at 1200 feet AGL and B airspace starting at 1600 feet MSL.

are in B airspace and must have prior permission from Orlando Approach Control.

16 / 50

16) Refer to red number 2 on the Orlando Chart's left side. You...

are launching in E airspace with G airspace at 1200 feet AGL.

are launching in E airspace with G airspace at 700 feet AGL.

are launching in G airspace with E airspace at 700 feet AGL.

are launching in G airspace with E airspace at 1200 feet AGL.

17 / 50

17) Refer to red number 1 on the Orlando Chart excerpt. You...

Can launch there with as little as 1 mile visibility.

Can launch there with as little as 3 miles of visibility.

Can launch there but must have at least 5 miles visibility.

Cannot launch there due to being Orlando's B airspace.

18 / 50

18) Flying over clouds is nearly always a bad idea because they can close in on you. But legally…(check all that apply)

you can fly over them as long as you don't go in them AND remain in G airspace AND remain below 1200'

you must maintain visual reference with the surface.

you cannot fly over clouds.

you must must maintain 500 feet below the clouds at all times

19 / 50

19) Wind direction is the direction from which the wind is blowing. For example: If the wind is shown as 270 degrees, this indicates the wind is blowing from the_________.

North.

South.

East.

West.

North/West

20 / 50

20) As the air temperature drops, which of the following statements are true? (Select all that apply)

The air is more dense and it will be harder to launch.

The air is more dense and therefore the propeller has more thrust.

The air is more dense therefore the glider has more lift.

You most likely won't have to run as far during launch.

You will have to run further and faster than you are used to.

21 / 50

21) The billowy, heaped-on looking clouds are:

Stratus.

Nimbus.

Cumulus.

Cirrus.

22 / 50

22) Active flying is defined as:

Flying in such a way as to keep the glider slowly moving left/right.

Holding about 2 pounds of brake press at all times.

Modulating the brakes so as to counter engine torque effects during throttle changes.

Modulation of brake pressures to keep the glider essentially centered overhead.

23 / 50

23) You are attempting a forward launch in 10 mph winds. What can you expect (select all that apply)?

The glider will tend to come up quicker and overfly you.

The pilot should use no A's and quarter brake during initial inflation.

Pulling too hard on the "A" lines may cause the glider to do a front tuck.

You may be pulled backward off your feet.

You will have to pull harder to get the glider to come up at all

24 / 50

24) You are launching in light winds. If you start your run, what is likely to happen if you suddenly slow your run mid-launch?

The glider could fly past you (over fly you) and collapse.

This is the best way to ensure the glider keeps flying fast enough.

Internal pressure will increase making the glider more efficient.

It is more likely the glider will stay centered above you.

25 / 50

25) The speed at which the glider will tend to fly when no pilot input is given (brakes in full up position) is called:

Trim speed.

Top speed.

Minimum sink speed.

Stall speed.

26 / 50

26) Powered paragliders are:

regulated under FAR 103 (the Sport Pilot Rule) and require a 3rd class medical.

regulated under FAR 103 only and require no medical or drivers license.

regulated under FAR 103 (the Sport Pilot Rule) and require only a valid drivers license.

regulated primarily under FAR 61 and 91 but must also adhere to FAR 103.

27 / 50

27) Before flying a new area, you must verify the airspace is legal. What are some ways you can check the airspace (select all that apply)?

Call flight service at 1-800-WX-BRIEF

Check the current/valid Sectional Chart (printed or online at skyvector.com)

You don't need to verify the airspace. We can fly anywhere we want.

Call the nearest airport and talk to the control tower.

28 / 50

28) Airspace can be closed to all flying. Which of the following statements are true? (check all that apply)

Airspace can be closed by NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with at least 24 hour notice.

Airspace can be closed by NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with little or no advance warning.

Flight Service (800 WX-BRIEF) is a good source for airspace closure information.

The nearest FAA Air Traffic Control Tower is the best source for airspace closure information.

TFR's (temporary flight restrictions) can be found online at tfr.faa.gov or on website sites like skyvector.com

29 / 50

29) In most U.S. airspace (G airspace), below 700' (1200' in some areas), how far must you remain from clouds?

Clear of clouds.

1 mile.

500' above, 2000' to the side and 1000' below.

500' below, 2000' to the side and 1000' above.

30 / 50

30) In the U.S., regarding G airspace (check all that apply)

It is all US airspace that is not classified as Class A, B, C, D, or E.

It is uncontrolled airspace.

It is most of the airspace up to either 700' or 1,200 feet AGL.

It sits on top of E airspace and requires higher visibility and cloud clearance requirements

31 / 50

31) In the U.S., regarding E airspace (check all that apply)

Permission is required.

In most places E airspace starts at either 700' or 1200' AGL.

Flying in E airspace requires better visibility and cloud clearance than G.

Flying in E airspace requires permission from the control tower

E airspace is not used in the U.S.

32 / 50

32) The minimum visibility for flying in E airspace is:

3 miles.

1 mile.

5 miles.

No minimum is specified since flight is prohibited there.

33 / 50

33) The minimum visibility for launching in the vast majority of U.S. territory, away from large airports, is:

3 miles.

1 mile.

3 miles at the surface and 5 miles above 700' AGL.

10 miles.

34 / 50

34) When two aircraft are approaching each other head-on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the______.

Right.

Left.

Right and increase altitude.

Left and increase altitude.

35 / 50

35) In which airspace(s) are we not required to talk with controllers? (Check all that apply):

Class A

Class C

Class D

Class E

Class G

36 / 50

36) Can we fly in A, B, C or D airspace? (ATC=Air Traffic Control)

Yes, ATC permission is NOT required, but must adhere to Class G visibility & cloud clearance minimums.

Yes, with ATC permission and at least Class G visibility & cloud clearance minimums.

Yes, with ATC permission and relevant visibility & cloud clearance minimums.

No. Ultralight vehicles are not allowed to operate within these types of airspace.

37 / 50

37) The FAA defines an ultralight vehicle as one that: (check all that apply)

Is used or intended to be used for recreation or sport purposes only.

If powered, weighs less than 254 pounds empty weight.

Has a fuel capacity not exceeding 5 US gallons.

Is not capable of flying more than 55 knots.

Has a minimum weight of 54 pounds

38 / 50

38) Regarding the use of a reserve parachute for powered paragliding:

PPG pilots typically fly at low attitudes, so a reserve parachute would not help.

Reserves are avoided due to the risk of accidental deployment.

Reserves are unnecessary since PPG pilots typically fly when the conditions are calm.

A reserve parachute can save your life in an emergency situation.

39 / 50

39) The front of the glider is called the leading edge; the back of the glider is called the trailing edge. The distance from the leading to trailing edges is called the_______.

Span.

Dihedral.

Chord.

Camber.

40 / 50

40) The tachometer is most useful for:

Detecting if the engine is overheating.

Measuring vibration.

Verifying the motor is able to achieve full power.

Reading out propeller RPM directly on reduction drive units.

41 / 50

41) The engine won't start. Inspection of the spark plug reveals the tip is a light brown color? This means:

The oil/gas mixture too lean, causing the engine to overheat.

The oil/gas mixture too rich, indicating the engine is flooded.

The spark plug is old and needs to be replaced.

Something else is causing the engine problem.

42 / 50

42) You can start the motor but the kill switch no longer shuts it off. What is the most likely cause?

Kill switch is stuck in the depressed condition.

The kill switch wire is broken or disconnected.

The kill switch ground wire has shorted to ground.

The master electrical switch is set on.

The ignition coil is defective.

43 / 50

43) If your prop spins counter-clockwise, as viewed from behind, at high power your BODY:

Yaws left but does not cause any turn.

Yaws right causing the wing to go into a left turn.

Does not yaw but the wing goes into a right turn.

Does not yaw but the wing goes into a left turn.

Yaws left and rolls right causing the wing to go right into a right turn.

44 / 50

44) Check all that apply. If the engine crank shaft spins left (counter clockwise), the prop spins:

Left on direct drives.

Left on gear reduction drives.

Left on belt reduction drives.

Left on clutched, gear reduction drives.

Left on clutched, belt reduction drives.

45 / 50

45) You normally fly near sea level but are now launching from a 5000 foot elevation. You…

May need to lean your fuel/air mixture.

Will have more thrust available.

May need to richen your fuel/air mixture.

May need to lean your oil/gas mixture.

1 and 2 are correct.

46 / 50

46) While you are flying, you should…

Always have a place to land in mind (in case you have a motor out).

Remain below 200 feet to avoid air traffic.

Remain hanging from the harness until you're ready to land.

Grasp the risers, as well as the brakes, when encountering turbulence.

All of the above.

47 / 50

47) Where is the safest place to start your engine?

On the ground.

On your back.

When the propeller is removed.

Strapped to a car.

48 / 50

48) What is the significance of the PPG2 rating?

It should fly under direct instructor supervision.

It is required to fly into Class E, B, C, or D airspace.

It is required to fly into class B, C, or D airspace.

It is considered the minimum skills and knowledge to fly on your own.

49 / 50

49) If you are landing at a crowded PPG fly-in:

Circle left to indicate you want to land.

Land behind (downwind) other pilots getting ready to take-off.

Make sure you land in front of other pilots, so they don't hit you.

Turn off your engine before landing.

Circle right to indicate you want to land

50 / 50

50) The default reaction to an unknown twisting or wing malfunction is:

Keep the power steady and pull the brakes to your shoulders.

Smoothly increase the power and reduce brake pressure.

Increase brake pressure while smoothly reducing power.

Smoothly reduce brake pressure and power, then steer.

Your score is

Written Test