PPG 2

PPG 2

Test your PPG 2 knowledge with this test.

Important: If you are a USPPA member, please make sure you are logged in to your account BEFORE you take the test. If you are not logged in, your test results will not be linked to your membership account.

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If you include an Instructor Name and Instructor Email, we will send your test results directly to your instructor as well (not required).

Your NameYour EmailInstructor NameInstructor Email

1 / 50

1) You take off and discover the right brake line is caught tight in its pulley. What should you do?

Focus only on the problem while you try to regain steering control

Establish a safe course and climb, steer with other means (rears, weight shift, etc.), then deal with it once you have altitude

Abort to as safe a landing as possible even if the terrain is not favorable

Immediately pull the brake with short, firm tugs to clear the tangle

2 / 50

2) The distance from the front of the wing to the back of the wing (represented by #2 in the image) is called?

Span

Chord

Thickness

Chord area

Span Ratio

3 / 50

3) Always refer to the pilot manual, but on many reflex gliders pilots should:

Avoid being fully slowed down and using the tip steering

Avoid being heavily accelerated and simultaneously using the regular brake toggles.

Avoid being heavily accelerated and using stabilo steering

Avoid being heavily accelerated and using the speedbar

4 / 50

4) The risk of spot landings is mostly from:

Landing short and hitting something

Landing long and hitting something

Pulling too much brake and stalling or spinning

Not pulling enough brake during the flare

5 / 50

5) Refer to the Wind Drift image. You're at position A when the motor quits and you want to make the Island. Approximately what heading will you fly?

The heading of glider 1

The heading of glider 2

The heading of glider 3

SOME heading to the right of glider 3's

SOME heading to the left of glider 1's.

6 / 50

6) If you encounter strong turbulence, you should:

fly the wing as directed in its manual and land immediately.

fly the wing as directed in its manual and analyze landing options.

fly with about 1/4 brake pressure and land immediately.

fly with about 1/4 brake pressure and analyze landing options.

7 / 50

7) Spiral dives, where the wing is pointed nearly straight down,

should be avoided on anything above a beginner certified glider. Higher performance gliders tend to "lock in."

are milder with trimmers set to slow. They are primarily dangerous with trimmers at their fastest settings.

are dangerous beyond appearances due to the risk of blacking out and extremely high descent rate.

when done properly, are a reliable way for newer pilots to descend in the event of getting into a cloud.

8 / 50

8) Parachutal stall is:

where the brakes are pulled enough for the wing to deform and come down like an old round parachute.

where the wing, fully inflated, stops flying forward and descends vertically.

where one side of the wing collapses in a way that stops forward speed, causing a vertical descent.

is not a factor in modern gliders.

3 and 4 are correct.

9 / 50

9) Refer to red D on the Orlando Chart's left side. You...

can fly from there with as little as 1 mile visibility.

cannot fly from there due to proximity to Orlando's B airspace.

cannot fly from there due to a special flight restriction.

can fly from there as long as you stay at least 1 mile away from the Disney world theme park.

10 / 50

10) Refer to red number 5 on the Orlando Chart. Launching there you...

are in G airspace with B airspace starting at 10000 feet AGL.

are in E airspace with B airspace starting at 1600 feet AGL.

are in G airspace with E airspace starting at 1200 feet AGL and B airspace starting at 1600 feet MSL.

are in B airspace and must have prior permission from Orlando Approach Control.

11 / 50

11) Refer to red number 4 on the Orlando Chart's bottom. Launching there you...

are in G airspace.

would be in E airspace if you climbed above 1200 feet.

1 and 2 are correct.

are illegal without prior permission from Orlando Approach control.

12 / 50

12) Refer to red number 3 on the Orlando Chart's left side. Which statement is true if you launch there?

You're in B airspace which overrides the Kissimmee D airspace.

You're in D airspace with B airspace above starting at 2000 feet MSL.

You're in G airspace with B airspace above starting at 2000 feet MSL.

You're in E airspace with D airspace above starting at 2000 feet MSL.

13 / 50

13) If you are at the beach and the "off-shore" breezes are 6-8 m.p.h. This indicates:

It's is blowing out to sea and conditions are likely to be turbulent.

It's blowing in from the sea and conditions should be smooth.

You should inflate / launch towards the water.

Final approach will be towards the water

14 / 50

14) What are some ways to suspect a gust front is heading your way? (check all that apply)

Virga is spotted

The temperature begins to drop.

Ridge of approaching clouds ("Shelf Cloud").

Aviation weather forecast information.

The cloud looks like it's moving away (being pushed) from where the rain is falling.

15 / 50

15) As the air temperature drops, which of the following statements are true? (Select all that apply)

The air is more dense and it will be harder to launch.

The air is more dense and therefore the propeller has more thrust.

The air is more dense therefore the glider has more lift.

You most likely won't have to run as far during launch.

You will have to run further and faster than you are used to.

16 / 50

16) You're at the beach of a large body of water. Wind is coming on shore but a mile inland it's blowing opposite (towards the water). Which is true?

Onshore beach winds suggest that any storms will move from over the land towards the water.

Wind strength tends to weaken in the afternoon.

Wind direction tends to become offshore in early afternoon then on shore later.

2 and 3 are correct.

You may experience convergence turbulence and the offshore wind may reach the beach.

17 / 50

17) On many sunny days, the presence of these clouds in the morning indicate increasing thermals and associated turbulence:

Stratus.

Nimbus.

Cumulus.

Cirrus.

Fog.

18 / 50

18) The billowy, heaped-on looking clouds are:

Stratus.

Nimbus.

Cumulus.

Cirrus.

19 / 50

19) Active flying is defined as:

Flying in such a way as to keep the glider slowly moving left/right.

Holding about 2 pounds of brake press at all times.

Modulating the brakes so as to counter engine torque effects during throttle changes.

Modulation of brake pressures to keep the glider essentially centered overhead.

20 / 50

20) What is the order of actions on a power-off landing:

Come out of the seat, ease hands mostly up for the last 20 feet, shut the motor off just before touchdown.

Shut the motor off, ease hands mostly up for the last 20 feet, come out the seat just before touchdown.

Shut the motor off, come out of the seat, ease hands mostly up for the last 20 feet until flaring.

Come out of the seat, hold about half power through the flare, shutting off the motor just before touchdown.

21 / 50

21) You are launching in light winds. If you start your run, what is likely to happen if you suddenly slow your run mid-launch?

The glider could fly past you (over fly you) and collapse.

This is the best way to ensure the glider keeps flying fast enough.

Internal pressure will increase making the glider more efficient.

It is more likely the glider will stay centered above you.

22 / 50

22) You are on final approach and notice that you are drifting to the right. What should you do?

Apply slight right brake to align your glider with your new flight path.

Apply slight left brake to bring your glider directly into the wind.

Begin your flair early to slow the glider and avoid obstacles.

Do not steer or twist, but be prepared to land sideways.

23 / 50

23) You are at 30 feet AGL on final approach. You should...

Apply ¾ brake input to slow the glider, getting ready to release it at touchdown.

keep minimal or no brake pressure until just before touchdown.

apply about ¼ brake input to slow the glider, getting ready to release it at touchdown.

Start applying brake until you reach full travel just before touchdown.

24 / 50

24) The speed at which the glider will tend to fly when no pilot input is given (brakes in full up position) is called:

Trim speed.

Top speed.

Minimum sink speed.

Stall speed.

25 / 50

25) The USPPA PPG2 rating will allow you to fly legally in Canada?

True.

False.

26 / 50

26) Airspace can be closed to all flying. Which of the following statements are true? (check all that apply)

Airspace can be closed by NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with at least 24 hour notice.

Airspace can be closed by NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with little or no advance warning.

Flight Service (800 WX-BRIEF) is a good source for airspace closure information.

The nearest FAA Air Traffic Control Tower is the best source for airspace closure information.

TFR's (temporary flight restrictions) can be found online at tfr.faa.gov or on website sites like skyvector.com

27 / 50

27) In the U.S., regarding G airspace (check all that apply)

It is all US airspace that is not classified as Class A, B, C, D, or E.

It is uncontrolled airspace.

It is most of the airspace up to either 700' or 1,200 feet AGL.

It sits on top of E airspace and requires higher visibility and cloud clearance requirements

28 / 50

28) In the U.S., regarding E airspace (check all that apply)

Permission is required.

In most places E airspace starts at either 700' or 1200' AGL.

Flying in E airspace requires better visibility and cloud clearance than G.

Flying in E airspace requires permission from the control tower

E airspace is not used in the U.S.

29 / 50

29) The minimum visibility for flying in E airspace is:

3 miles.

1 mile.

5 miles.

No minimum is specified since flight is prohibited there.

30 / 50

30) It is considered good "PPG Manners" to:

help other pilots layout their glider, even if they have not asked for assistance.

Announce your intention to start your motor by yelling, "Clear Prop."

Provide unsolicited advice over the radio while someone is getting ready to launch.

All of the above.

31 / 50

31) Which statement is True?

A PPG, after an engine failure, has the right-of-way over all powerd aircraft.

Objects may not be dropped from an ultralight.

Powered ultralights shall yield the right-of-way to unpowered ultralights.

unpowered ultralights shall yield the right-of-way to powered ultralights.

32 / 50

32) When two aircraft are approaching each other head-on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the______.

Right.

Left.

Right and increase altitude.

Left and increase altitude.

33 / 50

33) In which airspace(s) are we not required to talk with controllers? (Check all that apply):

Class A

Class C

Class D

Class E

Class G

34 / 50

34) Can we fly in A, B, C or D airspace? (ATC=Air Traffic Control)

Yes, ATC permission is NOT required, but must adhere to Class G visibility & cloud clearance minimums.

Yes, with ATC permission and at least Class G visibility & cloud clearance minimums.

Yes, with ATC permission and relevant visibility & cloud clearance minimums.

No. Ultralight vehicles are not allowed to operate within these types of airspace.

35 / 50

35) The FAA defines an ultralight vehicle as one that: (check all that apply)

Is used or intended to be used for recreation or sport purposes only.

If powered, weighs less than 254 pounds empty weight.

Has a fuel capacity not exceeding 5 US gallons.

Is not capable of flying more than 55 knots.

Has a minimum weight of 54 pounds

36 / 50

36) Regarding Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs), as a PPG pilot you…

are not regulated as a foot-launched ultralight vehicle.

operate only under FAR part 103.

operate only under the Ultralight section of FAR part 91.

operate only under the single-pilot section of Sport Pilot FAR.

operate only under the single-pilot section of FAR part 61.

37 / 50

37) Regarding the use of a reserve parachute for powered paragliding:

PPG pilots typically fly at low attitudes, so a reserve parachute would not help.

Reserves are avoided due to the risk of accidental deployment.

Reserves are unnecessary since PPG pilots typically fly when the conditions are calm.

A reserve parachute can save your life in an emergency situation.

38 / 50

38) You consistently have problems getting into your seat. What should you do?

Loosen your leg straps.

Connect a kick bar to the seat.

Perform a hang check with your instructor.

Wear jeans.

39 / 50

39) The tachometer is most useful for:

Detecting if the engine is overheating.

Measuring vibration.

Verifying the motor is able to achieve full power.

Reading out propeller RPM directly on reduction drive units.

40 / 50

40) You can start the motor but the kill switch no longer shuts it off. What is the most likely cause?

Kill switch is stuck in the depressed condition.

The kill switch wire is broken or disconnected.

The kill switch ground wire has shorted to ground.

The master electrical switch is set on.

The ignition coil is defective.

41 / 50

41) If your propeller is not balanced, what will you notice the most?

Increased vibration.

Increased noise.

Increased engine torque.

Increased thrust.

42 / 50

42) If your prop spins counter-clockwise, as viewed from behind, at high power your BODY:

Yaws left but does not cause any turn.

Yaws right causing the wing to go into a left turn.

Does not yaw but the wing goes into a right turn.

Does not yaw but the wing goes into a left turn.

Yaws left and rolls right causing the wing to go right into a right turn.

43 / 50

43) Most gas paramotor engines' crank shaft spins (as seen when looking at the paramotor from the rear) to the

left (counter clockwise)

right (clockwise)

left if the cotter key is on the “A” side

right if the cotter key is on the “A” side

44 / 50

44) If your engine is much louder than normal, you likely have:

A damaged ("blown") exhaust manifold gasket.

Cracked intake silencer.

Damaged welds on the tuned exhaust.

It could be any of the above.

45 / 50

45) What is the best indicator of wind direction while landing?

Wind sock or streamer at the landing site.

GPS

Smoke from a chimney a mile away.

Relative ground speed.

Waves on a nearby lake

46 / 50

46) While you are flying, you should…

Always have a place to land in mind (in case you have a motor out).

Remain below 200 feet to avoid air traffic.

Remain hanging from the harness until you're ready to land.

Grasp the risers, as well as the brakes, when encountering turbulence.

All of the above.

47 / 50

47) Where is the safest place to start your engine?

On the ground.

On your back.

When the propeller is removed.

Strapped to a car.

48 / 50

48) Of the answers below, which is the best choice for descending quickly?

Big Ears.

B-Line Stall.

Spiral Dive.

Full brake input.

49 / 50

49) If you are landing at a crowded PPG fly-in:

Circle left to indicate you want to land.

Land behind (downwind) other pilots getting ready to take-off.

Make sure you land in front of other pilots, so they don't hit you.

Turn off your engine before landing.

Circle right to indicate you want to land

50 / 50

50) The winds are blowing 6-8 m.p.h. from the South. What is the safest direction to fly before returning to the launch site?

North.

South.

East or West.

Makes no difference.

Your score is

Written Test