PPG 2

PPG 2

Test your PPG 2 knowledge with this test.

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Your NameYour EmailInstructor NameInstructor Email

1 / 50

1) You take off and discover the right brake line is caught tight in its pulley. What should you do?

Focus only on the problem while you try to regain steering control

Establish a safe course and climb, steer with other means (rears, weight shift, etc.), then deal with it once you have altitude

Abort to as safe a landing as possible even if the terrain is not favorable

Immediately pull the brake with short, firm tugs to clear the tangle

2 / 50

2) Weather in the mountains tends to be:

More dynamic because of Coriolis effect.

More dynamic because of lower overall solar heating. More dynamic because of lower overall solar heating.

Less dynamic because the mountains block horizontal winds.

Less dynamic because the mountains block sunlight in the values.

More dynamic due to uneven heating and eddies from winds.

3 / 50

3) The number 20 is pointing to a metal piece. What is that piece called?

Carabiner

Harnel Hook

Harnel D Ring

Quick link or Maillions

4 / 50

4) The number 12 is next to a small metal piece. What is this piece called?

Alternate brake connection

Alternate trimmer connection

Alternate trimmer connection (Harnel Hook)

Sister Clip (Brummel Hook) - For speed bar

5 / 50

5) The number 13 is next to a small pulley. What is this pulley for?

It's an alternate speedbar pulley.

It's an optional tip steering toggle.

It's a lower brake pulley. (can be used for high hang point harnesses)

It's an extra pulley to be used in case of a primary pulley failure.

None of the above

6 / 50

6) Always refer to the pilot manual, but on many reflex gliders pilots should:

Avoid being fully slowed down and using the tip steering

Avoid being heavily accelerated and simultaneously using the regular brake toggles.

Avoid being heavily accelerated and using stabilo steering

Avoid being heavily accelerated and using the speedbar

7 / 50

7) When landing in in strong turbulence:

Landing power ON makes success more likely at the risk of prop damage

Landing power OFF makes success more likely at the risk of equipment damage.

Slow down to your slowest possible speed to reduce the effect of the turbulence.

It's best to land power off with the trimmers set to fast and using fairly heavy braking.

8 / 50

8) The risk of spot landings is mostly from:

Landing short and hitting something

Landing long and hitting something

Pulling too much brake and stalling or spinning

Not pulling enough brake during the flare

9 / 50

9) Refer to the Wind Drift image. You're at position A when the motor quits and you want to make the Island. Approximately what heading will you fly?

The heading of glider 1

The heading of glider 2

The heading of glider 3

SOME heading to the right of glider 3's

SOME heading to the left of glider 1's.

10 / 50

10) A smooth 10 mph wind is blowing. Your motor quits and now you're trying to reach a landing field that is upwind of you. Which setting will enable you to travel the longest distance?

Set the trimmers to neutral and keep some brake pressure to minimize sink.

Set trimmers to their slowest setting and fly the best speed for minimum sink.

Set the trimmers to fast and minimize brake input to maximize glide.

Set the trimmers to fast but hold at least half brake to minimize sink at the higher speed.

11 / 50

11) Refer to red D on the Orlando Chart's left side. You...

can fly from there with as little as 1 mile visibility.

cannot fly from there due to proximity to Orlando's B airspace.

cannot fly from there due to a special flight restriction.

can fly from there as long as you stay at least 1 mile away from the Disney world theme park.

12 / 50

12) Refer to red number 4 on the Orlando Chart's bottom. Which statements are true?

You are over a congested area and must maintain at least 500 feet AGL.

You are over a congested area and must maintain at least 1000 feet AGL.

You may be over a congested area but the yellow has no legal significance in that regard.

You are not allowed to fly over a congested area at any altitude.

3 and 4 are correct.

13 / 50

13) Refer to red number 8 on the Orlando Chart. Which statement is true?

You cannot launch here due to being within 5 miles of a charted airport.

You cannot launch here due to being in Orlando's B airspace.

1 and 2 are true.

You are in G airspace and can launch here with as little as 1 mile visibility but need to be aware that B airspace is above you.

14 / 50

14) Refer to red number 5 on the Orlando Chart. Launching there you...

are in G airspace with B airspace starting at 10000 feet AGL.

are in E airspace with B airspace starting at 1600 feet AGL.

are in G airspace with E airspace starting at 1200 feet AGL and B airspace starting at 1600 feet MSL.

are in B airspace and must have prior permission from Orlando Approach Control.

15 / 50

15) Refer to red number 2 on the Orlando Chart's left side. You...

are launching in E airspace with G airspace at 1200 feet AGL.

are launching in E airspace with G airspace at 700 feet AGL.

are launching in G airspace with E airspace at 700 feet AGL.

are launching in G airspace with E airspace at 1200 feet AGL.

16 / 50

16) Refer to red number 3 on the Orlando Chart's left side. Which statement is true if you launch there?

You're in B airspace which overrides the Kissimmee D airspace.

You're in D airspace with B airspace above starting at 2000 feet MSL.

You're in G airspace with B airspace above starting at 2000 feet MSL.

You're in E airspace with D airspace above starting at 2000 feet MSL.

17 / 50

17) Wind direction is the direction from which the wind is blowing. For example: If the wind is shown as 270 degrees, this indicates the wind is blowing from the_________.

North.

South.

East.

West.

North/West

18 / 50

18) If you are at the beach and the "off-shore" breezes are 6-8 m.p.h. This indicates:

It's is blowing out to sea and conditions are likely to be turbulent.

It's blowing in from the sea and conditions should be smooth.

You should inflate / launch towards the water.

Final approach will be towards the water

19 / 50

19) As the air temperature drops, which of the following statements are true? (Select all that apply)

The air is more dense and it will be harder to launch.

The air is more dense and therefore the propeller has more thrust.

The air is more dense therefore the glider has more lift.

You most likely won't have to run as far during launch.

You will have to run further and faster than you are used to.

20 / 50

20) When the air is very humid, what does that usually mean for us as PPG pilots?

It is generally harder to launch in humid air (air is less dense).

The propeller has more thrust (air is more dense).

The glider has more lift (air is more dense).

You will likely have to run further during launch (air is less dense).

1 and 4 are correct.

21 / 50

21) You're at the beach of a large body of water. Wind is coming on shore but a mile inland it's blowing opposite (towards the water). Which is true?

Onshore beach winds suggest that any storms will move from over the land towards the water.

Wind strength tends to weaken in the afternoon.

Wind direction tends to become offshore in early afternoon then on shore later.

2 and 3 are correct.

You may experience convergence turbulence and the offshore wind may reach the beach.

22 / 50

22) Select all that apply. Which statement is true regarding weather:

Cold air sinks.

As a given parcel of air rises, it expands and warms

In a normal atmosphere, temperature decreases with altitude.

When air temperature increases with altitude it's called an inversion.

A given parcel of air will tend to rise faster after reaching an inversion.

23 / 50

23) On many sunny days, the presence of these clouds in the morning indicate increasing thermals and associated turbulence:

Stratus.

Nimbus.

Cumulus.

Cirrus.

Fog.

24 / 50

24) Active flying is defined as:

Flying in such a way as to keep the glider slowly moving left/right.

Holding about 2 pounds of brake press at all times.

Modulating the brakes so as to counter engine torque effects during throttle changes.

Modulation of brake pressures to keep the glider essentially centered overhead.

25 / 50

25) What is the order of actions on a power-off landing:

Come out of the seat, ease hands mostly up for the last 20 feet, shut the motor off just before touchdown.

Shut the motor off, ease hands mostly up for the last 20 feet, come out the seat just before touchdown.

Shut the motor off, come out of the seat, ease hands mostly up for the last 20 feet until flaring.

Come out of the seat, hold about half power through the flare, shutting off the motor just before touchdown.

26 / 50

26) The stall of a glider corresponds most directly to:

Air speed.

Ground speed.

Brake position.

Angle of attack.

27 / 50

27) You are attempting a forward launch in 10 mph winds. What can you expect (select all that apply)?

The glider will tend to come up quicker and overfly you.

The pilot should use no A's and quarter brake during initial inflation.

Pulling too hard on the "A" lines may cause the glider to do a front tuck.

You may be pulled backward off your feet.

You will have to pull harder to get the glider to come up at all

28 / 50

28) You are on final approach and notice that you are drifting to the right. What should you do?

Apply slight right brake to align your glider with your new flight path.

Apply slight left brake to bring your glider directly into the wind.

Begin your flair early to slow the glider and avoid obstacles.

Do not steer or twist, but be prepared to land sideways.

29 / 50

29) You are at 30 feet AGL on final approach. You should...

Apply ¾ brake input to slow the glider, getting ready to release it at touchdown.

keep minimal or no brake pressure until just before touchdown.

apply about ¼ brake input to slow the glider, getting ready to release it at touchdown.

Start applying brake until you reach full travel just before touchdown.

30 / 50

30) Regarding “weight shift", which statement is the most accurate?

Right weight shift will lower the right riser and cause some right turn.

Right weight shift will lower the left riser and cause some right turn.

lower the right riser and cause some left turn.

Weight shift should not be used on paramotors due to interference from torque.

31 / 50

31) Powered paragliders are:

regulated under FAR 103 (the Sport Pilot Rule) and require a 3rd class medical.

regulated under FAR 103 only and require no medical or drivers license.

regulated under FAR 103 (the Sport Pilot Rule) and require only a valid drivers license.

regulated primarily under FAR 61 and 91 but must also adhere to FAR 103.

32 / 50

32) Airspace can be closed to all flying. Which of the following statements are true? (check all that apply)

Airspace can be closed by NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with at least 24 hour notice.

Airspace can be closed by NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with little or no advance warning.

Flight Service (800 WX-BRIEF) is a good source for airspace closure information.

The nearest FAA Air Traffic Control Tower is the best source for airspace closure information.

TFR's (temporary flight restrictions) can be found online at tfr.faa.gov or on website sites like skyvector.com

33 / 50

33) In the U.S., regarding G airspace (check all that apply)

It is all US airspace that is not classified as Class A, B, C, D, or E.

It is uncontrolled airspace.

It is most of the airspace up to either 700' or 1,200 feet AGL.

It sits on top of E airspace and requires higher visibility and cloud clearance requirements

34 / 50

34) In the U.S., regarding E airspace (check all that apply)

Permission is required.

In most places E airspace starts at either 700' or 1200' AGL.

Flying in E airspace requires better visibility and cloud clearance than G.

Flying in E airspace requires permission from the control tower

E airspace is not used in the U.S.

35 / 50

35) It is considered good "PPG Manners" to:

help other pilots layout their glider, even if they have not asked for assistance.

Announce your intention to start your motor by yelling, "Clear Prop."

Provide unsolicited advice over the radio while someone is getting ready to launch.

All of the above.

36 / 50

36) In which airspace(s) are we not required to talk with controllers? (Check all that apply):

Class A

Class C

Class D

Class E

Class G

37 / 50

37) Which statement is true regarding night flying for paramotors?

We can fly up to 30 minutes after sunset IF we have strobe (visible 3-miles) AND we stay in G airspace.

It's allowed If the paramotor has steady green, red and white "3-mile lights" AND pilots stay within uncontrolled airspace.

Flying sunset to sunrise is allowed with an operating "3-mile strobe".

Flying between sunset to sunrise is not allowed regardless of lighting.

38 / 50

38) The FAA defines an ultralight vehicle as one that: (check all that apply)

Is used or intended to be used for recreation or sport purposes only.

If powered, weighs less than 254 pounds empty weight.

Has a fuel capacity not exceeding 5 US gallons.

Is not capable of flying more than 55 knots.

Has a minimum weight of 54 pounds

39 / 50

39) Regarding the use of a reserve parachute for powered paragliding:

PPG pilots typically fly at low attitudes, so a reserve parachute would not help.

Reserves are avoided due to the risk of accidental deployment.

Reserves are unnecessary since PPG pilots typically fly when the conditions are calm.

A reserve parachute can save your life in an emergency situation.

40 / 50

40) It is important to check the weather before flying. One of the best sources for this information is...

Call an FAA control tower for winds aloft.

Call a Flight Advisory Station at 888-WXR-INFO.

Call a Flight Service Station at 800-WX-BRIEF or use internet resources.

1 and 2.

41 / 50

41) The engine won't start. Inspection of the spark plug reveals the tip is a light brown color? This means:

The oil/gas mixture too lean, causing the engine to overheat.

The oil/gas mixture too rich, indicating the engine is flooded.

The spark plug is old and needs to be replaced.

Something else is causing the engine problem.

42 / 50

42) You can start the motor but the kill switch no longer shuts it off. What is the most likely cause?

Kill switch is stuck in the depressed condition.

The kill switch wire is broken or disconnected.

The kill switch ground wire has shorted to ground.

The master electrical switch is set on.

The ignition coil is defective.

43 / 50

43) If your propeller is not balanced, what will you notice the most?

Increased vibration.

Increased noise.

Increased engine torque.

Increased thrust.

44 / 50

44) Check all that apply. If the engine crank shaft spins left (counter clockwise), the prop spins:

Left on direct drives.

Left on gear reduction drives.

Left on belt reduction drives.

Left on clutched, gear reduction drives.

Left on clutched, belt reduction drives.

45 / 50

45) What is the best indicator of wind direction while landing?

Wind sock or streamer at the landing site.

GPS

Smoke from a chimney a mile away.

Relative ground speed.

Waves on a nearby lake

46 / 50

46) Where is the safest place to start your engine?

On the ground.

On your back.

When the propeller is removed.

Strapped to a car.

47 / 50

47) Of the answers below, which is the best choice for descending quickly?

Big Ears.

B-Line Stall.

Spiral Dive.

Full brake input.

48 / 50

48) What glider certification is generally considered the safest to fly?

EN-BEG

EN-ADV

EN-C

EN-B

EN-A

49 / 50

49) When is the safest time of day to fly? Check all that apply.

Early morning, after sunrise.

Mid-afternoon after clouds form.

Late-afternoon, an hour or so before sunset.

Just after cold frontal passage

50 / 50

50) What is the significance of the PPG2 rating?

It should fly under direct instructor supervision.

It is required to fly into Class E, B, C, or D airspace.

It is required to fly into class B, C, or D airspace.

It is considered the minimum skills and knowledge to fly on your own.

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Written Test