PPG 2

PPG 2

Test your PPG 2 knowledge with this test.

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1 / 50

1) Weather in the mountains tends to be:

More dynamic because of Coriolis effect.

More dynamic because of lower overall solar heating. More dynamic because of lower overall solar heating.

Less dynamic because the mountains block horizontal winds.

Less dynamic because the mountains block sunlight in the values.

More dynamic due to uneven heating and eddies from winds.

2 / 50

2) What does number 1 represent (distance between wing tip to wing tip)?

Span

Chord

Thickness

Chord area

Span Ratio

3 / 50

3) The distance from the front of the wing to the back of the wing (represented by #2 in the image) is called?

Span

Chord

Thickness

Chord area

Span Ratio

4 / 50

4) The number 20 is pointing to a metal piece. What is that piece called?

Carabiner

Harnel Hook

Harnel D Ring

Quick link or Maillions

5 / 50

5) The number 13 is next to a small pulley. What is this pulley for?

It's an alternate speedbar pulley.

It's an optional tip steering toggle.

It's a lower brake pulley. (can be used for high hang point harnesses)

It's an extra pulley to be used in case of a primary pulley failure.

None of the above

6 / 50

6) Always refer to the pilot manual, but on many reflex gliders pilots should:

Avoid being fully slowed down and using the tip steering

Avoid being heavily accelerated and simultaneously using the regular brake toggles.

Avoid being heavily accelerated and using stabilo steering

Avoid being heavily accelerated and using the speedbar

7 / 50

7) When landing in in strong turbulence:

Landing power ON makes success more likely at the risk of prop damage

Landing power OFF makes success more likely at the risk of equipment damage.

Slow down to your slowest possible speed to reduce the effect of the turbulence.

It's best to land power off with the trimmers set to fast and using fairly heavy braking.

8 / 50

8) Refer to the Wind Drift image. You're a half-mile offshore when the motor quits. What heading gives you the best chance of making it to shore in the shortest time possible.

The heading of glider 1

The heading of glider 2

The heading of glider 3

SOME heading to the right of glider 3's

SOME heading to the left of glider 1's.

9 / 50

9) A smooth 10 mph wind is blowing. Your motor quits and now you're trying to reach a landing field that is upwind of you. Which setting will enable you to travel the longest distance?

Set the trimmers to neutral and keep some brake pressure to minimize sink.

Set trimmers to their slowest setting and fly the best speed for minimum sink.

Set the trimmers to fast and minimize brake input to maximize glide.

Set the trimmers to fast but hold at least half brake to minimize sink at the higher speed.

10 / 50

10) Refer to red number 4 on the Orlando Chart's bottom. Which statements are true?

You are over a congested area and must maintain at least 500 feet AGL.

You are over a congested area and must maintain at least 1000 feet AGL.

You may be over a congested area but the yellow has no legal significance in that regard.

You are not allowed to fly over a congested area at any altitude.

3 and 4 are correct.

11 / 50

11) Refer to red number 8 on the Orlando Chart. Which statement is true?

You cannot launch here due to being within 5 miles of a charted airport.

You cannot launch here due to being in Orlando's B airspace.

1 and 2 are true.

You are in G airspace and can launch here with as little as 1 mile visibility but need to be aware that B airspace is above you.

12 / 50

12) Refer to red number 4 on the Orlando Chart's bottom. Launching there you...

are in G airspace.

would be in E airspace if you climbed above 1200 feet.

1 and 2 are correct.

are illegal without prior permission from Orlando Approach control.

13 / 50

13) Refer to red number 3 on the Orlando Chart's left side. Which statement is true if you launch there?

You're in B airspace which overrides the Kissimmee D airspace.

You're in D airspace with B airspace above starting at 2000 feet MSL.

You're in G airspace with B airspace above starting at 2000 feet MSL.

You're in E airspace with D airspace above starting at 2000 feet MSL.

14 / 50

14) Refer to red number 1 on the Orlando Chart excerpt. You...

Can launch there with as little as 1 mile visibility.

Can launch there with as little as 3 miles of visibility.

Can launch there but must have at least 5 miles visibility.

Cannot launch there due to being Orlando's B airspace.

15 / 50

15) Wind direction is the direction from which the wind is blowing. For example: If the wind is shown as 270 degrees, this indicates the wind is blowing from the_________.

North.

South.

East.

West.

North/West

16 / 50

16) Mark all that apply. If the dew point is the same or slightly higher than the air temperature. Which of the following statements is true?

There is likely to be no/minimal thermal activity.

Air is more likely to be turbulent.

Humidity is high.

Humidity is low.

Thermals are likely to be strong.

17 / 50

17) What are some ways to suspect a gust front is heading your way? (check all that apply)

Virga is spotted

The temperature begins to drop.

Ridge of approaching clouds ("Shelf Cloud").

Aviation weather forecast information.

The cloud looks like it's moving away (being pushed) from where the rain is falling.

18 / 50

18) When the air is very humid, what does that usually mean for us as PPG pilots?

It is generally harder to launch in humid air (air is less dense).

The propeller has more thrust (air is more dense).

The glider has more lift (air is more dense).

You will likely have to run further during launch (air is less dense).

1 and 4 are correct.

19 / 50

19) Select all that apply. Which statement is true regarding weather:

Cold air sinks.

As a given parcel of air rises, it expands and warms

In a normal atmosphere, temperature decreases with altitude.

When air temperature increases with altitude it's called an inversion.

A given parcel of air will tend to rise faster after reaching an inversion.

20 / 50

20) On many sunny days, the presence of these clouds in the morning indicate increasing thermals and associated turbulence:

Stratus.

Nimbus.

Cumulus.

Cirrus.

Fog.

21 / 50

21) Active flying is defined as:

Flying in such a way as to keep the glider slowly moving left/right.

Holding about 2 pounds of brake press at all times.

Modulating the brakes so as to counter engine torque effects during throttle changes.

Modulation of brake pressures to keep the glider essentially centered overhead.

22 / 50

22) The stall of a glider corresponds most directly to:

Air speed.

Ground speed.

Brake position.

Angle of attack.

23 / 50

23) If an asymmetric collapse happens in flight, you should:

reduce brake pressure, reduce power THEN steer.

immediately apply brake on the collapsed side to "pump" it out.

immediately and aggressively brake on the opposite side to prevent a turn from developing.

Go completely hands up

24 / 50

24) You are launching in light winds. If you start your run, what is likely to happen if you suddenly slow your run mid-launch?

The glider could fly past you (over fly you) and collapse.

This is the best way to ensure the glider keeps flying fast enough.

Internal pressure will increase making the glider more efficient.

It is more likely the glider will stay centered above you.

25 / 50

25) You are on final approach and notice that you are drifting to the right. What should you do?

Apply slight right brake to align your glider with your new flight path.

Apply slight left brake to bring your glider directly into the wind.

Begin your flair early to slow the glider and avoid obstacles.

Do not steer or twist, but be prepared to land sideways.

26 / 50

26) You are at 30 feet AGL on final approach. You should...

Apply ¾ brake input to slow the glider, getting ready to release it at touchdown.

keep minimal or no brake pressure until just before touchdown.

apply about ¼ brake input to slow the glider, getting ready to release it at touchdown.

Start applying brake until you reach full travel just before touchdown.

27 / 50

27) Regarding “weight shift", which statement is the most accurate?

Right weight shift will lower the right riser and cause some right turn.

Right weight shift will lower the left riser and cause some right turn.

lower the right riser and cause some left turn.

Weight shift should not be used on paramotors due to interference from torque.

28 / 50

28) The speed at which the glider will tend to fly when no pilot input is given (brakes in full up position) is called:

Trim speed.

Top speed.

Minimum sink speed.

Stall speed.

29 / 50

29) Powered paragliders are:

regulated under FAR 103 (the Sport Pilot Rule) and require a 3rd class medical.

regulated under FAR 103 only and require no medical or drivers license.

regulated under FAR 103 (the Sport Pilot Rule) and require only a valid drivers license.

regulated primarily under FAR 61 and 91 but must also adhere to FAR 103.

30 / 50

30) The USPPA PPG2 rating will allow you to fly legally in Canada?

True.

False.

31 / 50

31) Before flying a new area, you must verify the airspace is legal. What are some ways you can check the airspace (select all that apply)?

Call flight service at 1-800-WX-BRIEF

Check the current/valid Sectional Chart (printed or online at skyvector.com)

You don't need to verify the airspace. We can fly anywhere we want.

Call the nearest airport and talk to the control tower.

32 / 50

32) Airspace can be closed to all flying. Which of the following statements are true? (check all that apply)

Airspace can be closed by NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with at least 24 hour notice.

Airspace can be closed by NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with little or no advance warning.

Flight Service (800 WX-BRIEF) is a good source for airspace closure information.

The nearest FAA Air Traffic Control Tower is the best source for airspace closure information.

TFR's (temporary flight restrictions) can be found online at tfr.faa.gov or on website sites like skyvector.com

33 / 50

33) In the U.S., regarding G airspace (check all that apply)

It is all US airspace that is not classified as Class A, B, C, D, or E.

It is uncontrolled airspace.

It is most of the airspace up to either 700' or 1,200 feet AGL.

It sits on top of E airspace and requires higher visibility and cloud clearance requirements

34 / 50

34) In the U.S., regarding E airspace (check all that apply)

Permission is required.

In most places E airspace starts at either 700' or 1200' AGL.

Flying in E airspace requires better visibility and cloud clearance than G.

Flying in E airspace requires permission from the control tower

E airspace is not used in the U.S.

35 / 50

35) It is considered good "PPG Manners" to:

help other pilots layout their glider, even if they have not asked for assistance.

Announce your intention to start your motor by yelling, "Clear Prop."

Provide unsolicited advice over the radio while someone is getting ready to launch.

All of the above.

36 / 50

36) Can we fly in A, B, C or D airspace? (ATC=Air Traffic Control)

Yes, ATC permission is NOT required, but must adhere to Class G visibility & cloud clearance minimums.

Yes, with ATC permission and at least Class G visibility & cloud clearance minimums.

Yes, with ATC permission and relevant visibility & cloud clearance minimums.

No. Ultralight vehicles are not allowed to operate within these types of airspace.

37 / 50

37) The FAA defines an ultralight vehicle as one that: (check all that apply)

Is used or intended to be used for recreation or sport purposes only.

If powered, weighs less than 254 pounds empty weight.

Has a fuel capacity not exceeding 5 US gallons.

Is not capable of flying more than 55 knots.

Has a minimum weight of 54 pounds

38 / 50

38) Regarding Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs), as a PPG pilot you…

are not regulated as a foot-launched ultralight vehicle.

operate only under FAR part 103.

operate only under the Ultralight section of FAR part 91.

operate only under the single-pilot section of Sport Pilot FAR.

operate only under the single-pilot section of FAR part 61.

39 / 50

39) Regarding the use of a reserve parachute for powered paragliding:

PPG pilots typically fly at low attitudes, so a reserve parachute would not help.

Reserves are avoided due to the risk of accidental deployment.

Reserves are unnecessary since PPG pilots typically fly when the conditions are calm.

A reserve parachute can save your life in an emergency situation.

40 / 50

40) The front of the glider is called the leading edge; the back of the glider is called the trailing edge. The distance from the leading to trailing edges is called the_______.

Span.

Dihedral.

Chord.

Camber.

41 / 50

41) The tachometer is most useful for:

Detecting if the engine is overheating.

Measuring vibration.

Verifying the motor is able to achieve full power.

Reading out propeller RPM directly on reduction drive units.

42 / 50

42) You can start the motor but the kill switch no longer shuts it off. What is the most likely cause?

Kill switch is stuck in the depressed condition.

The kill switch wire is broken or disconnected.

The kill switch ground wire has shorted to ground.

The master electrical switch is set on.

The ignition coil is defective.

43 / 50

43) If your prop spins counter-clockwise, as viewed from behind, at high power your BODY:

Yaws left but does not cause any turn.

Yaws right causing the wing to go into a left turn.

Does not yaw but the wing goes into a right turn.

Does not yaw but the wing goes into a left turn.

Yaws left and rolls right causing the wing to go right into a right turn.

44 / 50

44) If your engine is much louder than normal, you likely have:

A damaged ("blown") exhaust manifold gasket.

Cracked intake silencer.

Damaged welds on the tuned exhaust.

It could be any of the above.

45 / 50

45) If you hear a "chirping" sound after you start the engine, you likely have a:

Loose propeller.

Rich oil/gas mixture.

Loose reduction belt.

Loose air intake silencer.

46 / 50

46) While you are flying, you should…

Always have a place to land in mind (in case you have a motor out).

Remain below 200 feet to avoid air traffic.

Remain hanging from the harness until you're ready to land.

Grasp the risers, as well as the brakes, when encountering turbulence.

All of the above.

47 / 50

47) Where is the safest place to start your engine?

On the ground.

On your back.

When the propeller is removed.

Strapped to a car.

48 / 50

48) When is the safest time of day to fly? Check all that apply.

Early morning, after sunrise.

Mid-afternoon after clouds form.

Late-afternoon, an hour or so before sunset.

Just after cold frontal passage

49 / 50

49) What is the significance of the PPG2 rating?

It should fly under direct instructor supervision.

It is required to fly into Class E, B, C, or D airspace.

It is required to fly into class B, C, or D airspace.

It is considered the minimum skills and knowledge to fly on your own.

50 / 50

50) If you are landing at a crowded PPG fly-in:

Circle left to indicate you want to land.

Land behind (downwind) other pilots getting ready to take-off.

Make sure you land in front of other pilots, so they don't hit you.

Turn off your engine before landing.

Circle right to indicate you want to land

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Written Test